Latest [Feb 15, 2022] 100% Passing Guarantee - Brilliant CS0-002 Exam Questions PDF [Q74-Q96]

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Latest [Feb 15, 2022] 100% Passing Guarantee - Brilliant CS0-002 Exam Questions PDF

CS0-002 Certification – Valid Exam Dumps Questions Study Guide! (Updated 299 Questions)


CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails

Threat and Vulnerability Management - 22%

Explain the importance of threat data and intelligence.1. Intelligence sources
  • Open-source intelligence
  • Proprietary/closed-source intelligence
  • Timeliness
  • Relevancy
  • Accuracy

2. Confidence levels
3. Indicator management

  • Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX)
  • Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information (TAXII)
  • OpenIoC

4. Threat classification

  • Known threat vs. unknown threat
  • Zero-day
  • Advanced persistent threat

5. Threat actors

  • Nation-state
  • Hacktivist
  • Organized crime
  • Insider threat
    Intentional
    Unintentional

6. Intelligence cycle

  • Requirements
  • Collection
  • Analysis
  • Dissemination
  • Feedback

7. Commodity malware
8. Information sharing and analysis communities

  • Healthcare
  • Financial
  • Aviation
  • Government
  • Critical infrastructure
Given a scenario, utilize threat intelligence to support organizational security.1. Attack frameworks
  • MITRE ATT&CK
  • The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
  • Kill chain

2. Threat research

  • Reputational
  • Behavioral
  • Indicator of compromise (IoC)
  • Common vulnerability scoring system (CVSS)

3. Threat modeling methodologies

  • Adversary capability
  • Total attack surface
  • Attack vector
  • Impact
  • Likelihood

3. Threat intelligence sharing with supported functions

  • Incident response
  • Vulnerability management
  • Risk management
  • Security engineering
  • Detection and monitoring
Given a scenario, perform vulnerability management activities.1. Vulnerability identification
  • Asset criticality
  • Active vs. passive scanning
  • Mapping/enumeration

2. Validation

  • True positive
  • False positive
  • True negative
  • False negative

3. Remediation/mitigation

  • Configuration baseline
  • Patching
  • Hardening
  • Compensating controls
  • Risk acceptance
  • Verification of mitigation

4. Scanning parameters and criteria

  • Risks associated with scanning activities
  • Vulnerability feed
  • Scope
  • Credentialed vs. non-credentialed
  • Server-based vs. agent-based
  • Internal vs. external
  • Special considerations
    Types of data
    Technical constraints
    Workflow
    Sensitivity levels
    Regulatory requirements
    Segmentation
    Intrusion prevention system (IPS), intrusion detection system (IDS), and firewall settings

5. Inhibitors to remediation

  • Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
  • Service-level agreement (SLA)
  • Organizational governance
  • Business process interruption
  • Degrading functionality
  • Legacy systems
  • Proprietary systems
Given a scenario, analyze the output from common vulnerability assessment tools.1.Web application scanner
  • OWASP Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP)
  • Burp suite
  • Nikto
  • Arachni

2.Infrastructure vulnerability scanner

  • Nessus
  • OpenVAS
  • Qualys

3.Software assessment tools and techniques

  • Static analysis
  • Dynamic analysis
  • Reverse engineering
  • Fuzzing

4.Enumeration

  • Nmap
  • hping
  • Active vs. passive
  • Responder

5. Wireless assessment tools

  • Aircrack-ng
  • Reaver
  • oclHashcat

6. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools

  • ScoutSuite
  • Prowler
  • Pacu
Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with specialized technology.1. Mobile
2. Internet of Things (IoT)
3. Embedded
4. Real-time operating system (RTOS)
5. System-on-Chip (SoC)
6. Field programmable gate array (FPGA)
7. Physical access control
8. Building automation systems
9. Vehicles and drones
  • CAN bus

10. Workflow and process automation systems
11. Industrial control system
12. Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)

  • Modbus
Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with operating in the cloud.1. Cloud service models
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

2. Cloud deployment models

  • Public
  • Private
  • Community
  • Hybrid

3. Function as a Service (FaaS)/serverless architecture
4. Infrastructure as code (IaC)
5. Insecure application programming interface (API)
6. Improper key management
7. Unprotected storage
8. Logging and monitoring

  • Insufficient logging and monitoring
  • Inability to access
Given a scenario, implement controls to mitigate attacks and software vulnerabilities.1. Attack types
  • Extensible markup language (XML) attack
  • Structured query language (SQL) injection
  • Overflow attack
    Buffer
    Integer
    Heap
  • Remote code execution
  • Directory traversal
  • Privilege escalation
  • Password spraying
  • Credential stuffing
  • Impersonation
  • Man-in-the-middle attack
  • Session hijacking
  • Rootkit
  • Cross-site scripting
    Reflected
    Persistent
    Document object model (DOM)

2. Vulnerabilities

  • Improper error handling
  • Dereferencing
  • Insecure object reference
  • Race condition
  • Broken authentication
  • Sensitive data exposure
  • Insecure components
  • Insufficient logging and monitoring
  • Weak or default configurations
  • Use of insecure functions
    strcpy

Software and Systems Security - 18%

Given a scenario, apply security solutions for infrastructure management.1. Cloud vs. on-premises
2. Asset management
  • Asset tagging

3. Segmentation

  • Physical
  • Virtual
  • Jumpbox
  • System isolation
    Air gap

4. Network architecture

  • Physical
  • Software-defined
  • Virtual private cloud (VPC)
  • Virtual private network (VPN)
  • Serverless

5. Change management
6. Virtualization

  • Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

7. Containerization
8. Identity and access management

  • Privilege management
  • Multifactor authentication (MFA)
  • Single sign-on (SSO)
  • Federation
  • Role-based
  • Attribute-based
  • Mandatory
  • Manual review

9. Cloud access security broker (CASB)
10. Honeypot
11. Monitoring and logging
12. Encryption
13. Certificate management
14. Active defense

Explain software assurance best practices.1. Platforms
Mobile
Web application
Client/server
Embedded
System-on-chip (SoC)
Firmware
2. Software development life cycle (SDLC) integration
3. DevSecOps
4. Software assessment methods
User acceptance testing
Stress test application
Security regression testing
Code review
5. Secure coding best practices
Input validation
Output encoding
Session management
Authentication
Data protection
Parameterized queries
6. Static analysis tools
7. Dynamic analysis tools
8. Formal methods for verification of critical software
9. Service-oriented architecture
  • Security AssertionsMarkup Language (SAML)
  • Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
  • Representational State Transfer (REST)
  • Microservices
Explain hardware assurance best practices.1. Hardware root of trust
Trusted platform module (TPM)
Hardware security module (HSM)
2. eFuse
3. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
4. Trusted foundry
5. Secure processing
  • Trusted execution
  • Secure enclave
  • Processor security extensions
  • Atomic execution

6. Anti-tamper
7. Self-encrypting drive
8. Trusted firmware updates
9. Measured boot and attestation
10. Bus encryption

Security Operations and Monitoring - 25%

Given a scenario, analyze data as part of security monitoring activities.1. Heuristics
2. Trend analysis
3. Endpoint
  • Malware
    Reverse engineering
  • Memory
  • System and application behavior
    Known-good behavior
    Anomalous behavior
    Exploit techniques
  • File system
  • User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

4. Network

  • Uniform Resource Locator (URL) and domain name system (DNS) analysis
    Domain generation algorithm
  • Flow analysis
  • Packet and protocol analysis
    Malware

5. Log review

  • Event logs
  • Syslog
  • Firewall logs
  • Web application firewall (WAF)
  • Proxy
  • Intrusion detection system (IDS)/Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

6. Impact analysis

  • Organization impact vs. localized impact
  • Immediate vs. total

7. Security information and event management (SIEM) review

  • Rule writing
  • Known-bad Internet protocol (IP)
  • Dashboard

8. Query writing

  • String search
  • Script
  • Piping

9. E-mail analysis

  • Malicious payload
  • Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
  • Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)
  • Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
  • Phishing
  • Forwarding
  • Digital signature
  • E-mail signature block
  • Embedded links
  • Impersonation
  • Header


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NEW QUESTION 74
When reviewing the system logs, the cybersecurity analyst noticed a suspicious log entry:
wmic /node: HRDepartment1 computersystem get username
Which of the following combinations describes what occurred, and what action should be taken in this situation?

  • A. A rogue user has queried for the administrator logged into the system. Attempt to determine who executed the command.
  • B. A rogue user has queried for users logged into in remotely. Attempt to determine who executed the command.
  • C. A rogue user has queried for users logged in remotely. Disable local access to network shares.
  • D. A rogue user has queried for the administrator logged into the system. Disable local access to use cmd prompt.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 75
A security analyst is monitoring authentication exchanges over the company's wireless network.
A sample of the Wireshark output is shown below:

Which of the following would improve the security posture of the wireless network?

  • A. Using PEAP instead of LEAP
  • B. Using SSL 2.0 instead of TLSv1.1
  • C. using aspx instead of .jsp
  • D. Using UDP instead of TCP

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 76
A security analyst, who is working for a company that utilizes Linux servers, receives the following results from a vulnerability scan:

Which of the following is MOST likely a false positive?

  • A. Anonymous FTP enabled
  • B. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
  • C. Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
  • D. Unsupported web server detection

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 77
A security analyst is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number of outbound requests over DNS.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this potential indicator of compromise'?

  • A. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
  • B. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
  • C. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway.
  • D. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state.
  • E. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 78
An organization has two environments: development and production. Development is where applications are developed with unit testing. The development environment has many configuration differences from the production environment. All applications are hosted on virtual machines. Vulnerability scans are performed against all systems before and after any application or configuration changes to any environment. Lately, vulnerability remediation activity has caused production applications to crash and behave unpredictably. Which of the following changes should be made to the current vulnerability management process?

  • A. Refine testing in the development environment to include fuzzing and user acceptance testing so applications are more stable before they migrate to production
  • B. Create a third environment between development and production that mirrors production and tests all changes before deployment to the users
  • C. Refine testing in the production environment to include more exhaustive application stability testing while continuing to maintain the robust vulnerability remediation activities
  • D. Create a second production environment by cloning the virtual machines, and if any stability problems occur, migrate users to the alternate production environment

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 79
A system's authority to operate (ATO) is set to expire in four days. Because of other activities and limited staffing, the organization has neglected to start reauthentication activities until now. The cybersecurity group just performed a vulnerability scan with the partial set of results shown below:

Based on the scenario and the output from the vulnerability scan, which of the following should the security team do with this finding?

  • A. Remediate by going to the web config file, searching for the enforce HTTP validation setting, and manually updating to the correct setting.
  • B. Ignore it. This is false positive, and the organization needs to focus its efforts on other findings.
  • C. Accept this risk for now because this is a "high" severity, but testing will require more than the four days available, and the system ATO needs to be competed.
  • D. Ensure HTTP validation is enabled by rebooting the server.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 80
During routine monitoring, a security analyst discovers several suspicious websites that are communicating with a local host. The analyst queries for IP 192.168.50.2 for a 24-hour period:

To further investigate, the analyst should request PCAP for SRC 192.168.50.2 and.

  • A. DST 175.35.20.5.
  • B. DST 172.10.3.5.
  • C. DST 172.10.45.5.
  • D. DST 138.10.25.5.
  • E. DST 138.10.2.5.

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 81
A technician receives the following security alert from the firewall's automated system:

After reviewing the alert, which of the following is the BEST analysis?

  • A. This alert indicates an endpoint may be infected and is potentially contacting a suspect host.
  • B. This alert is a false positive because DNS is a normal network function.
  • C. This alert was generated by the SIEM because the user attempted too many invalid login attempts.
  • D. This alert indicates a user was attempting to bypass security measures using dynamic DNS.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 82
An analyst is reviewing the following code output of a vulnerability scan:

Which of the following types of vulnerabilities does this MOST likely represent?

  • A. A XSS vulnerability
  • B. A credential bypass vulnerability
  • C. An HTTP response split vulnerability
  • D. A insecure direct object reference vulnerability

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 83
A compliance officer of a large organization has reviewed the firm's vendor management program but has discovered there are no controls defined to evaluate third-party risk or hardware source authenticity. The compliance officer wants to gain some level of assurance on a recurring basis regarding the implementation of controls by third parties.
Which of the following would BEST satisfy the objectives defined by the compliance officer? (Choose two.)

  • A. Utilizing DLP capabilities at both the endpoint and perimeter levels
  • B. Maintaining and reviewing the organizational risk assessment on a quarterly basis
  • C. Soliciting third-party audit reports on an annual basis
  • D. Completing a business impact assessment for all critical service providers
  • E. Executing vendor compliance assessments against the organization's security controls
  • F. Executing NDAs prior to sharing critical data with third parties

Answer: C,E

 

NEW QUESTION 84
A security analyst, who is working for a company that utilizes Linux servers, receives the following results from a vulnerability scan:

Which of the following is MOST likely a false positive?

  • A. Anonymous FTP enabled
  • B. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
  • C. Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
  • D. Unsupported web server detection

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 85
During a cyber incident, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

  • A. Switch to using a pre-approved, secure, third-party communication system.
  • B. Limit communications to pre-authorized parties to ensure response efforts remain confidential.
  • C. Keep the entire company informed to ensure transparency and integrity during the incident.
  • D. Restrict customer communication until the severity of the breach is confirmed.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 86
An organization is conducting penetration testing to identify possible network vulnerabilities. The penetration tester has received the following output from the latest scan:

The penetration tester knows the organization does not use Timbuktu servers and wants to have Nmap interrogate the ports on the target in more detail. Which of the following commands should the penetration tester use NEXT?

  • A. sudo nmap -sS 192.168.1.13
  • B. nmap 192.168.1.13 -v
  • C. nmap -sV 192.168.1.13 -p1417
  • D. nmap -sS 192.168.1.13 -p1417

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 87
A security analyst, who is working for a company that utilizes Linux servers, receives the following results from a vulnerability scan:

Which of the following is MOST likely a false positive?

  • A. Anonymous FTP enabled
  • B. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
  • C. Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
  • D. Unsupported web server detection

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 88
A security analyst is preparing for the company's upcoming audit. Upon review of the company's latest vulnerability scan, the security analyst finds the following open issues:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation FIRST?

  • A. Unsupported web server detection
  • B. Anonymous FTP enabled
  • C. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
  • D. Microsoft Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 89
A cybersecurity analyst is retained by a firm for an open investigation.
Upon arrival, the cybersecurity analyst reviews several security logs.
Given the following snippet of code:

Which of the following combinations BEST describes the situation and recommendations to be made for this situation?

  • A. The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 using Windows Task Scheduler at
    13:30 to runnc.exe; recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.
  • B. The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 to be running thenc.exe file at
    13:30 using the auto cron job remotely, there are no recommendations since this is not a threat currently.
  • C. The security analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 is a rogue device on the network, recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.
  • D. The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 is beaconing every day at 13:30 using thenc.exe file; recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 90
A security analyst positively identified the threat, vulnerability, and remediation. The analyst is ready to implement the corrective control. Which of the following would be the MOST inhibiting to applying the fix?

  • A. Requiring a firewall reboot.
  • B. Resetting all administrator passwords.
  • C. Full desktop backups.
  • D. Business process interruption.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 91
A system administrator is doing network reconnaissance of a company's external network to determine the vulnerability of various services that are running. Sending some sample traffic to the external host, the administrator obtains the following packet capture:

Based on the output, which of the following services should be further tested for vulnerabilities?

  • A. HTTPS
  • B. SMB
  • C. SSH
  • D. HTTP

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 92
A security analyst is monitoring authentication exchanges over the company's wireless network.
A sample of the Wireshark output is shown below:

Which of the following would improve the security posture of the wireless network?

  • A. Using PEAP instead of LEAP
  • B. Using SSL 2.0 instead of TLSv1.1
  • C. using aspx instead of .jsp
  • D. Using UDP instead of TCP

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 93
A cybersecurity analyst is reading a daily intelligence digest of new vulnerabilities The type of vulnerability that should be disseminated FIRST is one that:

  • A. affected the organization in the past but was probably contained and eradicated
  • B. enables remote code execution that is being exploited in the wild.
  • C. enables lateral movement and was reported as a proof of concept
  • D. enables data leakage but is not known to be m the environment

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 94
A cybersecurity analyst is currently checking a newly deployed server that has an access control list applied. When conducting the scan, the analyst received the following code snippet of results:

Which of the following describes the output of this scan?

  • A. The analyst has discovered a True Positive, and the status code is incorrect providing a forbidden message.
  • B. The analyst has discovered a True Positive, and the status code is correct providing a file not found error message.
  • C. The analyst has discovered a False Positive, and the status code is incorrect providing a server error message.
  • D. The analyst has discovered a False Positive, and the status code is incorrect providing an OK message.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 95
After completing a vulnerability scan, the following output was noted:

Which of the following vulnerabilities has been identified?

  • A. Web application cryptography vulnerability.
  • B. Active Directory encryption vulnerability.
  • C. PKI transfer vulnerability.
  • D. VPN tunnel vulnerability.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 96
......


Software & Systems Security: 18%

  • Explaining software assurance best practices: this topic requires the learners’ understanding of platforms, DevSecOps, secure coding best practices, software development life cycle integration, and dynamic analysis tools.
  • Explaining hardware assurance best practices: this will measure the knowledge of eFuse, unified extensible firmware interface, trusted foundry, secure processing, self-encrypting drive, bus encryption, measured boot and attestation, and trusted firmware updates.
  • Applying security solutions to infrastructure management: the candidates will demonstrate their understanding of Cloud vs. on-premise, assess management, segmentation, network architecture, change management, virtualization, containerization, identity & access management, encryption, active defense, monitoring, and logging.

 

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